Sugar confusion
May. 27th, 2009 12:36 pm![[personal profile]](https://www.dreamwidth.org/img/silk/identity/user.png)
Why is it that so many people are so convinced that beet sugar (invented in the Napoleonic era) is *more* ancient and specifically medieval than cane sugar (the original form of sugar)? Why do people think that cane sugar was not available in the middle ages and renaissance?
What can we do to combat this?
What can we do to combat this?
... because they're ignorant?
Date: 2009-05-27 06:30 pm (UTC)And references to sugar, sugar candy, sugar loaves, etc.
From Trevisa's translation of Bartholomaeus Anglicus' De proprietatibus rerum: "Sugure ... comeþ of certeyn canes and reedes þat groweþ in leyes and pondes faste by þe ryuer nilus, & þe jus of þilke canes hatte Canna mellis, and of þat jus is sugre y-made."
And Baking with Sugar in Renaissance Germany, and The Sweetest of Smiles. And ... a whole bunch of recipes.
You wanna put this all into a webpage/article, or shall I? ;) (It's more up your alley, really; if it were just a material culture thing, I'd be all over it.)